Alamony needs to be in court order? - Posted by RT in CA

Posted by Chuck (AZ) on March 13, 2002 at 01:38:26:

In my experience, the court signed order is the valid one, the other means nothing at this point… but I’d consult with an attorney, I have a feeling your going to need one before this is resolved.

Alamony needs to be in court order? - Posted by RT in CA

Posted by RT in CA on January 16, 2002 at 12:02:30:

One of my buyers was turned down yesterday because she can’t provide proof of her $300/month alamony in paper. And it has to be a court order paper. Does anyone have any experience like this?

Don’t get me wrong. I like to see the source of income in paper and verifiable. However, it doens’t mean the person is getting alamony even the court says so. Additionally, it doesn’t mean the person is not getting the alamony even the court doesn’t say so.

(I usually take a deep discount on unverifiable income.)

This specific buyer also has $200/month income from her daughter. Of course, it’s totally under the table and, again, it’s not on paper. What do you do when there is UNDERTABLE cash income?

(In this case, I ask the daughter to co-sign. If she has faith on her mom, I have faith on her mom.)

Thanks in advance.

RT in CA

Re: Alamony needs to be in court order? - Posted by Chuck (AZ)

Posted by Chuck (AZ) on January 16, 2002 at 13:39:13:

Unverifiable income is unverifiable income no matter how you cut it.

No paperwork = unverifiable.

A reciept for money paid or received would qualify as paperwork, as long as it shows the amount and date of the transaction. What about cancelled checks?

Re: Alamony needs to be in court order? - Posted by RT in CA

Posted by RT in CA on January 16, 2002 at 16:38:29:

You make a very good point on No paperwork = unverifiable.

However, the issue here is the park asks for court paper, not cancelled checks, for alamony.

I am OK with cancelled check. But the park is not.

Re: Alamony needs to be in court order? - Posted by Chuck (AZ)

Posted by Chuck (AZ) on January 16, 2002 at 17:41:01:

Same situtation… no court order = no court ordered (and thus court enforceable) alimony.

In other words, it’s all been “voluntary”.

Since there’s no paper trail, it can’t be proved or verified or deducted from their taxes.

Sounds pretty fast and loose to me.

Re: Alamony needs to be in court order? - Posted by Terri Kaney

Posted by Terri Kaney on March 12, 2002 at 21:29:27:

I’m not sure if this is the correct web site for my question; however, it appears to be along the same lines as the previous message. My husband has been divorced for some years. He and his ex-wife signed an agreement between themselves regarding the amount of alamony and the duration of the alamony. This document was given to their divorse attorney and an agreement was written up and became part of the divorse. As it turns out, the court agreement and the signed agreement between both are different. The first agreement stipulated alamony for 7 years, while the court document, signed by both, stipulated 6 years. Which document preceeds the other. Are we obligated to the first agreement or the court document? Please help. The ex-wife is now trying to hold us to the first agreement and setting aside the fact that she agreed to and signed the court document which was signed in court. She obviously changed her mind when she signed or agreed to the second document, didn’t she?