Can the seller void a "subject to" sale? - Posted by Charles

Posted by William Bronchick on November 22, 2000 at 10:51:50:

You are correct that a Judge could set aside a transfer, but not because of the seller’s duress (unless the buyer caused it by putting a gun to his head). A judge could also set it aside for fraud, unilateral mistake or because it is “unconscionable.” These are rare and extreme cases.

Can the seller void a “subject to” sale? - Posted by Charles

Posted by Charles on November 22, 2000 at 09:29:12:

Can a seller actually use the “duress” argument in voiding a “subject to” sale? I think some liberal judges might actually side with the seller.