I have a sub2 deal that I got the seller to give me a signed Purchase Agreement(sub2) and a signed QCD, but now he has found a cash buyer and wants out of the sub2…The QCD was not notarized or recorded…What is my recourse?
Posted by Bill Bronchick on October 16, 2003 at 08:07:19:
A deed signed without an acknowledgement is not necessarily void… it just may not be recordable.
I would try to record it anyway. People always slip unacknowledged instruments past the clerk in my state.
Maybe you could sign on the bottom, “received this __ day of ___, 2003” and have YOUR signature acknowledged. This is basically meaningless, but the notary stamp may fool the clerk and you will get on record. Then, when the seller goes to closing, the title company will find the deed and say, “hey we’ve got a problem Mr. Seller.” At that point, you can make him pay you cash to release your position. This is what is known as “legal extortion” - he promised to sell you a house and now he’s renegged. Rather than sue, simply put him in a position that he has to deal with you or lose a potential buyer.
Posted by Tom (WA) on October 15, 2003 at 23:25:42:
Chris,
I don’t want to be too hard on you but the lesson here is that you need to know what you are doing. There are quite a few courses available on “subject to” and my guess is that each and every one tell you that you need to get the deed notarized. Short cuts do not work for inexperienced investors.
It’s much cheaper to buy a few good courses than to lose a good deal.
The good news is that you now know that sellers will deed property to you.