Posted by Lorna…FT. Worth, TX on December 21, 1999 at 10:10:46:
…and then with your buyer.
For instance, I had one deal that I flipped where I had agreed to pay all the closing costs. Come to think of it, I was getting the property for just closing costs. What happened in this instance was that the title company did what they call a “pass through”. I arranged with my buyer to close first and then I closed later that day with the seller using my buyer’s funds. Technically though, possession of the property did not transfer until I completed the transaction with my seller.
I hope this helps.