Investor Implies I Committed Property Deal to Him - Posted by Elizabeth (NJ)
Posted by Elizabeth (NJ) on August 17, 2003 at 19:36:38:
I had contracts to purchase two (2) separate properties from 2 different sellers. I intended to purchase one for my family and began the process of applying for a mortgage. The 2nd property I intended to assign (both contracts are written with me “and/or assigns” as buyer). Both of these properties came to me because the homeowners called my office and asked me if I would buy them.
An investor contacted me and said I’ll give you $2,500 up front and I’ll take care of you at the back when I sell it. I was in a financial bind and said OK to one specific property (the one I really wanted but my credit is crappy so no mortgage), & I agreed to prepare an Assignment of Contract for that property for the $2,500 he was offering. When we met at my office he brought a bank check for $2,000 & a company check for $500 and on the company check he had written "assignments x2. I prepared the Assignment of Contract, and we went to the seller’s home (I called ahead of course), where I explained to the seller why I was assigning the contract (because I couldn’t arrange financing), and the Assignment had a space for the seller to sign his approval which the seller did. I had also prepared another contract of sale because I inadvertently omitted the signature date from the original. The seller and I executed the contract again so all documentation is in place.
During the time period (several days), when we were discussing assigning the contract, he would make comments to me like “your contract is not valid” (although it certainly was) and “This is not the way I usually do business but I know you’re in a bind”.
I’ve been in business for many years (not real estate), and I know when I’m being hustled. Still, because of my immediate financial bind, I took his offer for the $2,500 because it was what I needed at the time.
Investor #1 keeps telling me what his plans are for the 2nd property, saying he will use it as an enticement to get another investor to buy another piece of property from him. We have not executed anything and I have not assigned the contract to him or anyone else on this 2nd property.
Here’s my dilemma: I have an investor I know who will take the 2nd property from me thru an assignment and pay me $5K this week for it. I know her and I trust her.
I never signed anything with the first investor for the 2nd property, and I did not verbally agree to give him the 2nd property as a gift. But based upon his statements to me and the note on his company check (“assignment x 2”), it seems obvious that either he believes that I did agree, or he is intentionally pushing me to assign the 2nd property to him, assuming I am so incredibly naive that I won’t question it.
I do not believe I am legally bound to him via the 2nd property and that I am legally able to offer it to my other investor.
You might ask why don’t I keep it myself: Because it requires extensive renovation and is a good fixer upper but is located in an area that is commercial & residential depending on which side of the lane you are standing on. I’m buying it for $40K and the comps say it’s worth (after fix up) approx. $100K. So I know it’s a good deal for someone.
Would you kindly advise if I am legally able to offer this 2nd property to my other investor. I appreciate your comments on this so that I can get this problem property off my back. Thank you.