Posted by Linda Simms on September 24, 2003 at 09:01:40:
The buyer’s lender, in my experience, is not concerned with whose names are on the existing loans, just that they are paid off by theirs or any other means. The existing loans/mortgages and who is in title are two separate things. I would not worry about it.
I have a question I’ve never thought before when I did a sub2 deal.
I’ve lived in a house where I bought through subject 2 (got the deed, put it in land trust, but the loan still under the seller’s name).
Now, if I want to sell it, and the new buyer apply for a loan through bank. Will the Buyer’s lender confuse because they’ll be paying someone else’s loan and not mine (as a seller)?
How does the pay off work if the deed is under the land trust (with me as beneficiary) and the loan is under the seller’s name?