Question about ownership - Posted by Barbara

import · May 28, 2005, 4:08pm

Posted by David Krulac on May 28, 2005 at 20:29:52:

I bet that neither wants to give the other their equity?e

import · May 28, 2005, 4:08pm

Posted by Barbara on May 28, 2005 at 16:08:49:

My brother and his ex wife own a vacation property jointly which is worth way over $150 free and clear. They have been divorced for many years and the original deed states “Joint tenants by the entirety”. Now that they are divorced can either one refinance their half without the other’s permission? Thanks

import · May 28, 2005, 5:39pm

no, there property must be in one of the 17 - Posted by David Krulac

Posted by David Krulac on May 28, 2005 at 17:39:33:

states that use “tenants by the entireity”, but that’s not the issue. Most lenders will want both owners to sign the mortgage. Since they are divorced the tenents by the entireity is no longer valid. That is only reserved for married couples. Their form of owner ship reverts to tenants in common.

import · May 28, 2005, 7:53pm

Re: no, there property must be in one of the 17 - Posted by luke-NC

Posted by luke-NC on May 28, 2005 at 19:53:29:

get the one to quit claim to the other