OK ED!!!.. I need your help. I am working with an Estate. I am getting conflicting messages on the existing reverse mortgage. I want to purchase the house as a “TearDown”…so I need to purchase the house for at least half of what I believe the amount of the reverse mortgage is. I understand that most reverse mortgages are FHA issued!!! and if this is the case then does it make sense for the lender to “Short Sale” and then go after FHA for the missing owed amount or have the Estate give the house back and then the mortgage company try to sell the house retail…the house is a true tear down…bad, bad, old (1950’s) shape, never updated, many, many years of deferred maintenance. Is it true that the lender will accept most any amount and then will go back to FHA for the remainder of what is owed on the reverse mortgage. I’m confused!!! Any feedback / help!!! Thank you for your time!!