I’ve never actually needed this before, but it may be a solution for a problem, the question is am I calcing it right. My thought is to compute the value of the partial as “usual” at my buy rate and then compute a PV on that value as if it were a balloon occuring at the time space of the proposed purchase.
EX:
Prin 100,000
Int 8% face
Term 360
Pmt 733.76
If I bought 60 pmts at 15%, I get $30,843.89; now if this is at origination and I’m actually buying payments 61-120, I’d discount the 30,843.89 as if it were a balloon with int=15%, pmt=0,term=61 and FV=30,843.89, giving $14,456.62
Posted by John Behle on June 17, 1999 at 19:35:30:
There are three ways to do your example calculation. Your thinking is exactly how I figured out to do it many years ago. I called it the double discount. In those days the calculators could not handle “un-even cash flows”.
The second way to do it would be to calculate the value of the whole note, then the value of the first 60 payments. Subtract the value of what you didn’t buy (the first 60 payments) from the value of the whole note and what is left over is the value of the tail of the note.
The third way involves using the un-even cash flow functions of the calculator where you enter:
-0- Initial Cash flow
-0- Cash Flow one
60 Months
733.76 Cash Flow two
60 Months
Enter the desired yield and solve for NPV or Net Present Value.