Posted by Ben (NJ) on June 14, 2000 at 19:34:49:
barring extraordinary cicumstances as long as the owner had sufficient notice and was properly joined etc, I doubt a judge would vacate the judgment after more than two years has elapsed. I have heard of special circumstances which warranted the vacating of a judgment, one was where an old man was giving his daughter the money to pay the taxes and she was stealing it. When this came to light the judge understandably overturned the judgment. This an area
rife with judicial discretion though.