Posted by Realmaven on September 10, 2003 at 24:44:21:
Here’s the short story…
In New York, I bought a foreclosure high-ranch house at sheriff’s sale. The day after closing (30+ days after the sale), I cleared out half the contents of the house and “liquidated” it. The house was not lived in - Just a warehouse of articles/furniture etc…
Does the “holdover” ex-owner have a case against me for “burglarizing” the house? He says he lives there (HA!).
Opinions on this and what I can do? Was I wrong to prepare MY house for habitation?
The hearing is next week. Naturally, I will have representation.