Posted by Mike on November 27, 2000 at 18:11:31:
If I have a seller accept my offer (subject to) on December 1, 2000 and in my agreement it says that the time of closing will be on or before 30 days after date of acceptence.
If I close on December 31, 2000 who pays the Jan 1, 2001 payment?
Me or the Seller?
I would have to think the seller would …Right? Why should I pay for December while I was getting title checked and termite inspections etc!